[Vision2020] Keely answers doug

[Joseph Campbell]

I wanted to respond to this question with a challenge for you, Michael. (I
have some other things to say about the exchange between you, Wayne and
others about evil, etc. but that will have to wait.)

Is it possible to argue that "homosexuality is part of our sin condition"
without having as a consequence that being a slave owner is not necessarily
part of our sin condition? In other words, can one use the bible to "prove"
that gay/lesbian sex relations are wrong without also suggesting that
slavery is sometimes OK? Because if you can't, then appeal to the bible for
moral claims is VERY problematic. And if not an appeal to the bible, what is
the basis for the suggestion that "homosexuality is part of our sin
condition"?

All the best, Joe Campbell