[WSBARP] Interpretation of RCW 64.06.010

[Craig Blackmon]

Here is the relevant portion:

[A Seller Disclosure Statement is not required in] ... (4) A transfer where
a buyer had *an ownership interest* in the property within two years of the
date of the transfer *including, but not limited to*, an ownership interest
as a partner in a partnership, a limited partner in a limited partnership,
a shareholder in a corporation,* a leasehold interest*, or transfers to and
from a facilitator pursuant to a tax deferred exchange; (emphasis added)

Question: If the buyer had a leasehold interest in the property, would the
transfer fall within this exclusion, i.e. would the seller be excused from
providing the disclosure statement? Or in plain ol' English, does a
landlord have to give a tenant/buyer a Form 17? This language seems
ambiguous to me, I am curious for the thoughts of others (and perhaps a
citation to the authority that clarifies the issue).

Thanks in advance!!

Craig
Craig Blackmon, Attorney at Law
FSBO Law Center <http://fsbolawcenter.com>
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