[Vision2020] Philosophical question

[Joe Campbell]

This much is the same, Chas. The difference is we've kept the term
"knowledge" and accommodated the shift whereas the push now is not to
similarly redefine "free will" but to deny it exists, which leaves us
in search of a new term to capture the kind of control that some of us
have but some of us lack. Does that make sense? Joe

On Wed, Aug 1, 2012 at 12:04 AM, Chasuk <chasuk at gmail.com> wrote:
> I don't see a dichotomy. We have never had infallible certainty, and
> now we acknowledge this in our claims. Likewise, with free will. For
> example, Sam Harris doesn't claim that some have free will, and some
> don't. He is claiming that none of us do, and never have. After all,
> if there exists a single person who lacks control of his or her
> actions, then, logically, how could anyone have it? In both cases, our
> understanding has changed, not (merely, or even necessarily) the
> terms.