[Vision2020] SIDEWALKS
Area Man (Dan C)
areaman at moscow.com
Wed Dec 7 12:26:49 PST 2005
Chas muses on the "ownership" of sidewalks.
(Now I'm no lawyer, but I have some very limited understanding, and if I
say something out of turn, hopefully someone can correct me)
I think the sidwalk you "own" is actually within the public
right-of-way. I can't speak for city streets, but on county roads, if
the road is not deeded, but is public right-of-way through proscriptive
use, you actually own to the center of the road. But, you don't pay
taxes on that section of road. It is counted as waste acreage.
I wonder if the same can be said about sidewalks/city streets? Do we
own to the center of the street, but only pay taxes on what is not
public right-of-way? If that's the case, I think that is a sort of
"rent" paid to the landowner (the lack of taxation on that part of their
property) that allows public access.
Again, I'm no lawyer, but that's would seem a reasonable explaination in
layman's terms.
DC
P.S. For the record, if you don't shovel the sidewalk in front of your
digs, you suck.
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