[Vision2020] More Questions for Doug:

Andreas Schou scho8053@uidaho.edu
Sun, 12 Oct 2003 12:25:11 -0700


First: is the sin of manstealing transmissible? That is: is the purchase of a slave from someone who took them without regard to the Biblical constraints on taking slaves a sin?

Second, and this question comes with some assumptions about your theology, so I apologize in advance if those assumptions are wrong: how does the "seven year bondsman" rule regarding Jewish slaves translate to converted slaves? Does it?

Third: the Bible supplies several categories of bondsmen, and rules under which other peoples may be taken as servants. Under which of these categories does the taking of the children of servants as slaves fall? 

-- ACS