[Vision2020] Re: Slavery, Homosexuality, and Biblical Punishments

[Steve Wells]

Please forgive my delayed response, but I just returned from a three 
week trip to Europe. I must say, though, that I am disappointed in your 
answers, Douglas.

In my first question, I asked if you believe that slavery is acceptable 
when the slave owner treats the slaves humanely. You answered that "it 
was possible for a Christian individual to own a slave without sinning 
individually." But my question referred to the present, not the past. 
And you didn't answer it.

You were a lot clearer about it in the pamphlet (Southern Slavery: As It 
Was). There you say: "The Bible permits Christians to own slaves, 
provided they are treated well." Is that still your position? Does the 
Bible permit Christians to own slaves *today*? You say it was okay in 
the time of Moses, David, Jesus, and Lincoln. What about now? Or are you 
falling back on the "that was then, this is now" position that you 
criticized Jerry Falwell for in the pamphlet?

The second question was this: "Are death and exile the biblical 
punishments for homosexuality? Do you think these punishments should be 
applied today? If so, when should each be used?" I didn't see an answer, 
Douglas. I'll accept your view that there are two biblical punishments 
(although I find the evidence for exile rather weak), but should these 
punishments be applied today? And if so, when should homosexuals be 
exiled and when should they be killed? Or is this just another 
Falwellian "that was then, this is now" hem and haw?

The third question you answer clearly. You are opposed to applying the 
punishment that is clearly commanded by God in Leviticus 20:14.

"And if a man take a wife and her mother, it is wickedness: they shall 
be burnt with fire, both he and they; that there be no wickedness among 
you."

God says we should burn to death all three, yet you are opposed to doing 
so. Why is that? Is it another case of "that was then, this is now"? Or 
is it that you are embarrassed by some of the vicious stuff in the bible?  

I agree with you when you said that "If the Scriptures are the Word of 
God, then we should accept it. If the Scriptures are not inspired, then 
we should not. It is really that simple."  Are Lev.20:13 and 20:14 (and 
hundreds of other similar verses) inspired by God or are they not? It is 
a simple question.

Or is it just another case of "that was then, this is now"?