<div dir="ltr">Depends what authority the city used. See, for example, RCW 35A.060.010 and 35.80.030. You will likely wish to get a copy of the judgment (there is no statutory authority of which I am aware for a prejudgment lien for code violations.)</div><br><div class="gmail_quote gmail_quote_container"><div dir="ltr" class="gmail_attr">On Thu, Dec 18, 2025 at 6:27 AM Chris B <<a href="mailto:chrisb@firstavenuelaw.com">chrisb@firstavenuelaw.com</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex">
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In my opinion, if it’s recorded as a lien, then it’s just against the property.
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<div>While there’s certainly a claim against the individual, if it’s not reduced to judgment, it’s just that, a claim.</div>
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<div dir="ltr">Christopher T Benis
<div>Sent from my iPhone</div>
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<blockquote type="cite">On Dec 17, 2025, at 8:29 PM, Craig Gourley <<a href="mailto:craig@glgmail.com" target="_blank">craig@glgmail.com</a>> wrote:<br>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11pt">Listmates We have a client that a city entered his property and demolished a building and then filed a lien for about $90k. I don’t know all of the back story or details yet but my question is one of liability.
Does anyone know if this type of lien is personal or just run with the property? If he let’s the bank foreclose is the obligation gone or does it follow him personally if he no longer owns the property? Thanks in advance!<u></u><u></u></span></p>
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