<div dir="ltr"><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small">It's just a motion to enforce the decree and probably to assign a special master (if the party in possession is being uncooperative). </div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small">Lynn Clare</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small">Clare Law Firm</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:tahoma,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div></div><br><div class="gmail_quote gmail_quote_container"><div dir="ltr" class="gmail_attr">On Thu, Jul 10, 2025 at 3:13 PM Craig Gourley <<a href="mailto:craig@glgmail.com">craig@glgmail.com</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex"><div class="msg-2263271699960437341">
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11pt">Listmates. I have a client that has a divorce decree that says home will be sold by X date. Date has now passed and client wants to force sale. I have zero family law experience. Is this something that
would require reopening the divorce case and enforcing the judgement terms or should we bring a separate partition action to enforce the terms. I had heard someplace that divorce cases could not revisit property issues. I apologize in advance if this is
a stupid question. Craig <u></u><u></u></span></p>
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