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<div class="elementToProof"><span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">Listmates,</span></div>
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<span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">Is it required that the lender approve a short sale in the context of a probate? represent a PR who does not have nonintervention powers.</span><span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; color: rgb(0, 0, 0); background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255);"> </span><span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">The
PR accepted an offer for 90% of the appraised value, contingent on court approval. </span></div>
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<span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">However, because the net proceeds will not fully pay off the balance on the mortgage the realtor said that the lender would need to approve the sale. The lender then
obtained its own appraisal, which came back higher than the estate's appraisal. Based on its appraisal and its own requirement that the net proceeds be at least 88% of its appraisal, the lender says it will not approve the sale. The property has a HUD mortgage
on it and the lender also says that in a short sale the costs of administering the estate cannot be paid from the proceeds. This is contrary to RCW 11.76.110, which states that the costs of administration are to be paid prior to all other debts.</span></div>
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<span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">The lender has already referred the property to foreclosure. In a foreclosure, the
</span><span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; color: rgb(0, 0, 0); background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255);">expenses of administering the estate will
<u>not</u> have priority over the mortgage and therefore will not get paid. In re Estate of Patton, 405 P.3d 205 (Wash. App. 2017).</span><span style="font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);"> I am considering filing
a motion to approve the sale, setting it for hearing, and giving the lender notice. Does the lender really have the ability to block the sale if the PR has followed all the statutory procedures and the court approves it? </span></div>
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<p style="margin-top: 0px; margin-bottom: 0px;"><span style="font-family: Arial, sans-serif; font-size: 12pt; color: rgb(0, 0, 0);">Sincerely,<br>
Jon M. Fritzler<br>
Attorney at Law<br>
717 E. 22<sup>nd</sup> St.<br>
Vancouver, WA 98663<br>
Tel. 360.818.4431</span></p>
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fritzlerlaw@outlook.com</a></span></p>
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