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<p>My only thought is it was possibly intended to deal with the
mother's current marriage, to make it clear the life estate is
separate property. Absent the current husband joining in the deed
I doubt it accomplished that, and if there is a current husband
there might be other concerns if he didn't join in as grantor.<br>
</p>
<p>Whatever it means, the transaction should probably be undone and
then done properly, in some way that would minimize possible
REET. <br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 11/16/2022 9:46 AM,
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:Jeff@bellanddavispllc.com">Jeff@bellanddavispllc.com</a> wrote:<br>
</div>
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<p class="MsoNormal">This has to be a law school question. Mom
transfers her real property to her children, reserving in
herself a life estate. The Bargain and Sale Deed goes onto to
say:<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">“Further Reserving unto Grantor for
Grantor’s life the full power and right, in Grantor’s absolute
discretion, by her act and signature alone to sell, convey,
lease, mortgage, encumber or otherwise to manage and dispose
of the Property, or any portion thereof, and the proceeds
therefrom, to the same extent and in the same manner that
Grantor would enjoy if the Property were Grantor’s sole and
separate property.” <o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Seems to me nothing was transferred; It
seems like a weird type of transfer on death deed. Your
thoughts.<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Jeff Davis<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><b><span
style="font-family:"Tahoma",sans-serif">W. Jeff
Davis<o:p></o:p></span></b></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><b><span
style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Tahoma",sans-serif;color:black">BELL
& DAVIS PLLC<o:p></o:p></span></b></p>
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