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<p>Which gives rise to the question, shouldn't this be an insured
transaction? I've never thought about something like that before,
but when you're dealing with that many parties IF title insurance
is available, seemingly it would be prudent to get it. And IF
they do insure such transactions, then you could ask the title
examiner what they require.</p>
<p>But yes, I do like this answer. I once had a real estate client
unexpectedly die on a listing the day an offer was coming in. The
buyer's agent was old-school and wanted to present the offer
directly to my widow client. I had a hard time convincing her
that she should wait at least a day. The death didn't slow
anything down at all on the transaction. Just a affidavit of lack
of probate was required.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 9/16/2022 2:58 PM, K. Garl Long
wrote:<br>
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<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:c47298c7-6154-e3ee-e349-aba94957f6c7@longlaw.biz">
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<p>Real property transferred to heir immediately upon death. If
she left it to her husband, either by statutory inheritance of a
will, survivor can transfer without probate. (Title company
would even bless such transfer based upon a lack of probate
affidavit.)</p>
<p>K. Garl Long<br>
</p>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 9/16/22 14:51, Inge Fordham wrote:<br>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Colleagues,<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">I have a case involving easement rights
where the owners of 18 separate properties will need to sign
an easement allowing my clients (owners of a 19<sup>th</sup>
property) to use the easement over a private road. As you
can imagine, it is not particularly easy to work with 18
separate households. I recently learned that one of the
owners passed away. The property in question is community
property owned by a husband and wife. The wife passed and
the husband continues to reside at the property. I have no
indication that probate was commenced or that the cloud on
title was otherwise cleared. What is the effect of the
grant of easement rights over that parcel if the surviving
husband signs but the deceased wife does not? Legally, I
believe both owners on title need to sign, meaning the
property would need to be transferred solely to the
surviving husband before he could sign the easement. If my
clients elect to proceed with just one signature before the
cloud on title is cleared, does that render the grant of an
easement over that parcel invalid? The delay and cost of
commencing probate to have a PR/administrator appointed to
clear title would be an expensive burden for my clients, not
to mention a significant delay, if the family does not
intend to probate the decedent’s estate. My clients believe
it is highly unlikely that anyone would ever go back and
trace the fact that the deceased wife did not sign and may
press to proceed with just the surviving husband’s signature
before the cloud on title is cleared. I will, of course,
counsel my clients in accordance with the law.
Unfortunately, clients do not always follow advice of
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<p class="MsoNormal">Thank you,<o:p></o:p></p>
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