<div dir="ltr"><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">No new case law that I know of. My reading of the facts was that the property was acquired during marriage and after they moved to WA, so presumed community, not separate.</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">If the H can show that clearly traceable proceeds of separate funds were used to purchase, then that plus title -- although title is weird as you noted, and I would jump on that if I was the W's attorney -- might be enough to rebut the community property presumption. But I've lost that argument in the absence of a pre or post nuptial agreement when the "clearly traceable" part was not obvious enough. Damn the clients who will hopelessly commingle their money.</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">Lynn</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br></div></div><br><div class="gmail_quote"><div dir="ltr" class="gmail_attr">On Wed, Jan 26, 2022 at 11:53 AM Kary Krismer <<a href="mailto:Krismer@comcast.net">Krismer@comcast.net</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex">
<div>
<p>Title is not determinate, but I don't know of any case law that
using SP isn't enough if title is only taken in only one name
(although "John Doe, a married man" is sort of unusual if not
ambiguous). Source of funds is the typical tracing analysis. Is
there some case law relatively new that I'm not aware of that
would convert SP into CP simply because of a transfer of type of
property?<br>
</p>
<pre cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148</pre>
<div>On 1/26/2022 11:01 AM, Lynn Clare
wrote:<br>
</div>
<blockquote type="cite">
<div dir="ltr">
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">Doug</div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br>
</div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">In family
law, WA favors characterization of property as community
property unless there is clearly no question of its separate
character. If property is acquired during marriage, except by
gift or inheritance, it's presumed community property. The
party who wants to rebut that presumption must do so by clear
and convincing evidence that the property was meant to be
separate. The name on the deed is not enough to overcome the
presumption. Using separate funds to purchase isn't enough by
itself either. </div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br>
</div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">The
court's really love community property agreements that clearly
distinguish what property is meant to remain separate, OR quit
claim deeds from a spouse transferring title to the other as
separate property.</div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small"><br>
</div>
<div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:arial,sans-serif;font-size:small">Lynn
Clare</div>
</div>
<br>
<fieldset></fieldset>
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