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<p>I'm not sure Doug's issues matter based on zero research and what
my wife claims is a <strike>questionable</strike> faulty memory.
<br>
</p>
<p>I believe a grantee under a statutory warranty deed would take
subject to the AP claim even if the full 10 years had not passed
at the time of transfer. The AP claimant would merely have to
wait for the remaining time to pass. I don't see any reason a
grantee of a DEED of trust would be any different. If the claim
of ownership disappears through AP I think it disappears as to
anyone with a claim against the property, or at least anyone
claiming through the owner against which the period of AP started.</p>
<p>Alternatively, if the 10 years had passed at the time of the
recording of the DOT then the DOT may have never attached to the
portion. As I recall it's the date of the expiration of 10 years
that matters, not the date of the court ruling that the 10 years
passed.</p>
<p>As to Greg's point about title insurance, if the bank has
coverage the bank would have little motivation to act and so
probably won't act. But does a lender's policy cover AP, or does
it matter when the AP claim 10 year period expired? I'm pretty
sure owner's policies wouldn't cover an owner when the entire
period of AP occurred after they took title.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 9/10/2020 8:02 PM, Doug Owens wrote:<br>
</div>
<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:A2B1C45C-4E34-475A-8394-C194E5EAE4FE@seattlerelawyer.com">
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Dear Craig, this is an interesting question. I have not done any
research on the point but it seems to me that the principle behind
adverse possession is that the open, notorious and hostile
possession for the statutory term should be something that would
motivate the person entitled to protect the property interest to
take action to eject the trespasser. Under this principle I ask
myself what could the lien holder have done to eliminate the
trespass? And is the lien holder charged with knowledge of the
adverse possession such that the lien holder could declare a
breach of the deed of trust for the borrower’s failure to protect
the title? On what basis would such knowledge be imputed? An
alternative analysis is that the adverse possessor takes title
“subject to” the lien. At a minimum if the adverse possessor did
not serve the lender with the summons and complaint it would seem
anomalous that the lien could be invalidated by the award of title
through adverse possession. Good luck. Yours truly, Doug Owens<br
class="">
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Listmates, When a party is awarded title to property by
adverse possession is the lender lien automatically
stripped? We have an uncooperative lender that refuses
to recon the adversely possessed parcel and we really
don’t want to file a quiet title over a planter box.
However, this small cloud on title is preventing our
clkient’s sale of the property. Thoughts?<o:p class=""></o:p></div>
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