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<p>Would a title company remove the exception for the DOT on those
facts? Seemingly they could rely on the court order rather than
needing a release.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 9/11/2020 1:04 PM, Craig Gourley
wrote:<br>
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Thank you all. In thus case the AP claim in about 30 years old
so predates the DOT. We did serve the bank and they are subject
to the award of AP. Problem is that the bank sold the loan after
the AP award so we have a new "lender" who was not a party.
Normally banks do a partial recon and we have no issues. Here
the new lender is not a party and won't respond to our
communications .
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<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com">wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com</a>
<a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com"><wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com></a> on behalf of Gregory
L. Ursich <a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:gursich@insleebest.com"><gursich@insleebest.com></a><br>
<b>Sent:</b> Friday, September 11, 2020 9:59:36 AM<br>
<b>To:</b> WSBA Real Property Listserv
<a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com"><wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com></a><br>
<b>Subject:</b> Re: [WSBARP] Release of bank lien on adverse
possession.</font>
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<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;
font-family:"Calibri",sans-serif; color:black">All
Lender’s title policies have extended coverage and
therefore insurance for AP claims. By suing the lender in
the quiet title, they will instantly tender to the title
insurer and will get appointed a very reasonable attorney,
such as myself, to have the lender stipulate to adverse
possession. -Greg</span></p>
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<p class="x_MsoNormal"><b><span style="font-size:11.0pt;
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<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com">wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com</a>
[<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com">mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com</a>]
<b>On Behalf Of </b>Kary Krismer<br>
<b>Sent:</b> Friday, September 11, 2020 6:04 AM<br>
<b>To:</b> <a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com">wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com</a><br>
<b>Subject:</b> Re: [WSBARP] Release of bank lien on
adverse possession.</span></p>
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<p class="x_MsoNormal"> </p>
<p>I'm not sure Doug's issues matter based on zero research
and what my wife claims is a
<s>questionable</s> faulty memory. </p>
<p>I believe a grantee under a statutory warranty deed would
take subject to the AP claim even if the full 10 years had
not passed at the time of transfer. The AP claimant would
merely have to wait for the remaining time to pass. I don't
see any reason a grantee of a DEED of trust would be any
different. If the claim of ownership disappears through AP
I think it disappears as to anyone with a claim against the
property, or at least anyone claiming through the owner
against which the period of AP started.</p>
<p>Alternatively, if the 10 years had passed at the time of
the recording of the DOT then the DOT may have never
attached to the portion. As I recall it's the date of the
expiration of 10 years that matters, not the date of the
court ruling that the 10 years passed.</p>
<p>As to Greg's point about title insurance, if the bank has
coverage the bank would have little motivation to act and so
probably won't act. But does a lender's policy cover AP, or
does it matter when the AP claim 10 year period expired?
I'm pretty sure owner's policies wouldn't cover an owner
when the entire period of AP occurred after they took title.</p>
<pre>Kary L. Krismer </pre>
<pre>206 723-2148</pre>
<div>
<p class="x_MsoNormal">On 9/10/2020 8:02 PM, Doug Owens
wrote:</p>
</div>
<blockquote style="margin-top:5.0pt; margin-bottom:5.0pt">
<p class="x_MsoNormal">Dear Craig, this is an interesting
question. I have not done any research on the point but
it seems to me that the principle behind adverse
possession is that the open, notorious and hostile
possession for the statutory term should be something that
would motivate the person entitled to protect the property
interest to take action to eject the trespasser. Under
this principle I ask myself what could the lien holder
have done to eliminate the trespass? And is the lien
holder charged with knowledge of the adverse possession
such that the lien holder could declare a breach of the
deed of trust for the borrower’s failure to protect the
title? On what basis would such knowledge be imputed? An
alternative analysis is that the adverse possessor takes
title “subject to” the lien. At a minimum if the adverse
possessor did not serve the lender with the summons and
complaint it would seem anomalous that the lien could be
invalidated by the award of title through adverse
possession. Good luck. Yours truly, Doug Owens</p>
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<p class="x_MsoNormal">On Sep 10, 2020, at 6:47 PM,
Craig Gourley <<a href="mailto:craig@glgmail.com"
moz-do-not-send="true">craig@glgmail.com</a>>
wrote:</p>
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<div>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span
style="font-size:11.0pt;
font-family:"Calibri",sans-serif">Listmates,
When a party is awarded title to property by
adverse possession is the lender lien
automatically stripped? We have an
uncooperative lender that refuses to recon the
adversely possessed parcel and we really don’t
want to file a quiet title over a planter box.
However, this small cloud on title is preventing
our clkient’s sale of the property. Thoughts?</span></p>
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