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<p>Actually there would be no Form 17 on an estate sale. It's
exempt. Agents are used to that, so it shouldn't raise any
eyebrows.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
John L. Scott, Inc.
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 1/10/2020 11:16 AM,
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:michael@westseattleattorney.com">michael@westseattleattorney.com</a> wrote:<br>
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<div>I agree with you and note that if you sell through the
estate, no Form 17 is filled out so "as is" to buyer</div>
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-------- Original Message --------<br>
Subject: [WSBARP] Capital gains and probate<br>
From: Jim Doran <<a href="mailto:jim@doranlegal.com"
moz-do-not-send="true">jim@doranlegal.com</a>><br>
Date: Fri, January 10, 2020 10:26 am<br>
To: WSBA Real Property Listserv <<a
href="mailto:wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com"
moz-do-not-send="true">wsbarp@lists.wsbarppt.com</a>><br>
<br>
<div dir="ltr"><font size="4">Listees:</font>
<div><font size="4"><br>
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<div><font size="4">A typical scenario. Homeowner dies
and has no Will. There is only one heir, so no
problem there. The question is about capital gains.
It is easiest to leave the real property in the estate
under the decedent's name until it sells and then have
the Personal Representative issue a deed to the
buyer. However, the very savvy heir has asked me
this question. Does the stepped-up basis occur if we
hold the property in the estate for sale or do we need
to transfer the property to the heir and then have her
sell it?</font></div>
<div><font size="4"><br>
</font></div>
<div><font size="4">I think the stepped-up basis occurs
either way, but I am not sure. Help.</font></div>
<div><font size="4"><br>
</font></div>
<div><font size="4">Jim Doran</font></div>
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<div>James R. Doran<br>
</div>
Attorney at Law<br>
</div>
100 E. Pine Street - Suite 205<br>
</div>
Bellingham, WA 98225<br>
(360)393-9506<br>
</div>
<a href="mailto:jim@doranlegal.com"
target="_blank" moz-do-not-send="true">jim@doranlegal.com</a><br>
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<a href="http://www.doranlegal.com"
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