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<p>Absent a default, correct, and even then I think you'd likely
have to go through the statutory procedure for forfeit out the
interest.</p>
<p>You might want to look at Cascade Security Bank v. Butler, 88
Wn2d 777 (1977) and maybe even Freeborn v. Seattle Trust, 94 Wn.2d
336 (1980), although to some extent these cases deal with
perfection issues. <br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">Kary L. Krismer
John L. Scott/KMS Renton
206 723-2148</pre>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 1/23/2018 9:33 PM, Scott Hildebrand
wrote:<br>
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<p class="MsoNormal">In Washington, we hardly ever deal with
these things, so I thought I would throw it out to the group.<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">I have a client who is trying to buy a
house from someone who is the heir of the owner who gave a
real estate contract to the current purported owner of the
property.<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">The purported owner has recorded no deed,
but has recorded a real estate contract which includes
phrasing that, upon completion of the payments, the buyer will
receive a fulfillment deed.<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Apparently, something has gone wrong and
the party granting a real estate contract wants to renig and
sell to my client. They are arguing that the purported owner
does not hold title because he never recorded a deed.<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">I recall, from those many years ago, that a
real estate contract or a “contract for deed” gives all the
trappings of ownership to the buyer, they just do not get a
deed until their obligations are fulfilled, correct?<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">So the question is, can I file a quiet
title action to establish ownership in the party granting the
real estate contract. Methinks the answer is no..no??<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Thanks in advance,<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Scott Hildebrand<o:p></o:p></p>
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