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</o:shapelayout></xml><![endif]--></head><body lang=EN-US link="#0563C1" vlink="#954F72"><div class=WordSection1><p class=MsoNormal>Dearest Real Property Gurus<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>I have a client who has acquired property and there is property separated by a fence that can be claimed via adverse possession. My client has only had the property for a while, but claims they can tack on the previous owners use for more than seven years.<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Help me with some statutory interpretation if you are willing:<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>7.28.050 seems to be the standard definition of adverse possession.<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>7.28.070 requires an adverse possessor to have used the land and paid taxes.<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>I get the reimbursement for taxes if paid by the adverse party and the attorney fees provision, but does the non-payment of taxes make my client’s case that much less defensible? Is it likely to be tossed for lack of stating a claim under the law?<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>If someone could shed some light on this, I would appreciate it.<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Best,<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Scott Hildebrand<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Attorney at Law<o:p></o:p></p></div></body></html>