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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">It sounds to me like client's sole interest was to no longer be on the mortgage? And that mortgage has been extinguished at this point, by the sale to a third
party?<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">The "backyard mortgage" also sounds like a technical violation of the property settlement agreement, but not an issue if no prejudice resulted to the client.
Since the ex received the property, an undisclosed mortgage simply diminishes the value of the property received by the ex.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">If that is the case, then I agree, nothing here is actionable by client. Regardless of what the ex is doing, it has nothing to do with the client. So long as
nothing in the shady transactions traces to the client.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Sincerely,<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Eric<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Eric C. Nelsen<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">SAYRE LAW OFFICES, PLLC<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">1320 University St<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Seattle WA 98101-2837<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">phone 206-625-0092<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">fax 206-625-9040<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><b><span style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Tahoma","sans-serif"">From:</span></b><span style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Tahoma","sans-serif""> wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com [mailto:wsbarp-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com]
<b>On Behalf Of </b>Ross Gardner<br>
<b>Sent:</b> Thursday, January 07, 2016 4:06 PM<br>
<b>To:</b> WSBA Real Property Listserv<br>
<b>Subject:</b> [WSBARP] Post-Divorce Property Transfer Debacle Question<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Good Afternoon Everyone,<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">I have a bit of a unique situation. I have a Client who divorced a couple of years ago. As part of the property settlement agreement, C agreed to give the house to the Ex by quitclaim in exchange for being removed from the mortgage.
Ex also stated that there were no outstanding encumbrances or liabilities other than the mortgage and credit card debt. <o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Ex asked C for the quitclaim deed in early 2014, but apparently refused to remove C's name from the mortgage, so C did not produce the quitclaim deed. Somehow, the Ex was able to sell the home a few months later without C's consent. The
chain of title magically goes from Husband and Wife as owners of the property, to a single person transferring the property to a buyer. Ex supposedly had to pay money into the deal to make it happen, so there were no proceeds.<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">It also turns out that Ex mortgaged a portion of their backyard prior to the divorce to Ex's parents in exchange for $100k, which violated the property settlement agreement and also was probably not disclosed to the buyer. That backyard
portion was recently reconveyed to Ex.<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Although there were clearly shady dealings going on, I don't know if any of this is actionable since my client did not have any monetary damages. Obviously, we can probably try to undo the whole deal and/or report the real estate and title
agents to their professional boards, but my client does not seem to want to go that route (thankfully).<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Does anyone have any other suggestions? Is there anything I am missing? I would really appreciate any and all input on this.<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Thanks so much!<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Arial","sans-serif"">Best Regards,<br>
<br>
Ross Gardner, J.D</span><o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Arial","sans-serif"">Attorney </span><o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Arial","sans-serif"">.<br>
425-870-4430<br>
</span><a href="mailto:Ross@tglawgrp.com">Ross@tglawgrp.com</a><o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><a href="http://www.tglawgrp.com">www.tglawgrp.com</a><o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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