[WSBARP] 2nd DOT invalid?

[Kary Krismer]

Assuming no knowledge of the 2nd DOT, wouldn't client be a BFP and thus 
take clear of the 2nd DOT?  If that's not the purpose of recording 
statutes, I don't know what is.

Did client have title insurance?  If so, that would cover the DOT even 
if it recorded a couple of hours or days before the deed.

Kary L. Krismer
206 723-2148

On 3/29/2022 11:41 AM, Douglas Scott wrote:
> Client sells property to buyer securing the substantial balance of the 
> payments by a 1st DOT.  Unknown to the client, 2 months before the 
> sale, the buyer had signed a 2nd DOT which buyer then recorded 9 days 
> after the sale closed. Would executing the 2nd DOT 2 months before the 
> buyer even bought the property render the 2nd DOT invalid?
>
> *DOUGLAS W. SCOTT*
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