[WSBARP] Quitclaim Deed Question

[John J. Sullivan]

Craig: 

I would say when the dust settles Party 1 owns 100% in fee simple to everything he originally conveyed, and any additional property later appended. IMHLO the standard after title phrase is intended to convey property not included in the original conveyance (I leave it to dirt attorneys to explain how - maybe after a survey showed an additional strip should have been included in the legal description?). 

I don’t see the standard language creating a TIC. It’s not like a renvoi in Conflicts of Laws. 

Just my two cents. 

John J. Sullivan

Sent from my iPhone

> On Dec 29, 2021, at 11:24 AM, Craig Blackmon <craig at lawofficeofcraigblackmon.com> wrote:
> 
> 
> I suppose it is determined by the intent of the parties? If they intended to create a tenancy in common, arguably they have done so. If they intended for Party 1 to be the sole owner, well arguably they have done so. But good luck dealing with the title company.... :-)
> 
> A good one! Thanks for sharing.
> 
> 
> Craig
> Craig Blackmon, Attorney at Law
> 92 Lenora St. #8, Seattle WA  98121 
> Office/Cell: (206) 369-5949   
> On the blog: Co-Ownership of Real Property by Single People
>    
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> 
> On Wed, Dec 29, 2021 at 11:20 AM Mark Anderson <marka at mbaesq.com> wrote:
>> Dear Listmates:
>> 
>> This is just the sort of logic question that might appear on an LSAT. 
>> 
>> Party 1 records a quitclaim deed to Property to Party 2, including the phrase “and all after-acquired title.”  Sometime later, Party 2 records a quitclaim deed to that same Property back to Party 1, which deed also includes the phrase “and all after-acquired title.”
>> 
>> Who holds title to the Property?
>> 
>> Mark B. Anderson
>> ANDERSON LAW FIRM PLLC
>> 821 Dock St  Ste 209  PMB 4-12
>> Tacoma, Washington 98402
>> +1 253-327-1750
>> +1 253-327-1751 (fax)
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