[WSBARP] Quitclaim Deed Question

[Craig Blackmon]

I suppose it is determined by the intent of the parties? If they intended
to create a tenancy in common, arguably they have done so. If they intended
for Party 1 to be the sole owner, well arguably they have done so. But good
luck dealing with the title company.... :-)

A good one! Thanks for sharing.


Craig
Craig Blackmon, Attorney at Law
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On the blog: Co-Ownership of Real Property by Single People
<https://www.fsbolawyers.org/blog/tenants-in-common-agreement>
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On Wed, Dec 29, 2021 at 11:20 AM Mark Anderson <marka at mbaesq.com> wrote:

> Dear Listmates:
>
> This is just the sort of logic question that might appear on an LSAT.
>
> Party 1 records a quitclaim deed to Property to Party 2, including the
> phrase “and all after-acquired title.”  Sometime later, Party 2 records a
> quitclaim deed to that same Property back to Party 1, which deed also
> includes the phrase “and all after-acquired title.”
>
> Who holds title to the Property?
>
>
> *Mark B. Anderson *ANDERSON LAW FIRM PLLC
> 821 Dock St  Ste 209  PMB 4-12
> Tacoma, Washington 98402
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