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Decedent and Surviving Spouse (SS) were married for 22 years. Decedent owned a house prior to marriage but mortgage payments were made throughout the marriage. (There is still a balance owed on a mortgage.) Is the entire house separate property because decedent
purchased it prior to the marriage or is it community property to the extent that mortgage payments were made during the marriage? </div>
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It matters because the decedent died intestate and never had any children but his siblings are entitled to 25% of his separate property pursuant to RCW 11.04.015. </div>
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Jon M. Fritzler</div>
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<span style="background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255);">Attorney at Law</span></div>
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