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<div style="direction: ltr;">Random thoughts. Doesn’t the estate own the property? If the IRS owns his share it could get much more than their lien amount as a joint owner on some future sale. Or it may try to force a sale just to recover its lien, that way
b loses. Is there a joint tenancy agreement on transfer or an LLC agreement or such that may have soomthing to do with this and what about a homestead?
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<div id="divRplyFwdMsg" dir="ltr"><font face="Calibri, sans-serif" style="font-size:11pt" color="#000000"><b>From:</b> wsbapt-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com <wsbapt-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com> on behalf of Natalie Kuehler <nk@ryankuehler.com><br>
<b>Sent:</b> Sunday, March 15, 2020 3:14:50 PM<br>
<b>To:</b> wsbapt@lists.wsbarppt.com <wsbapt@lists.wsbarppt.com><br>
<b>Subject:</b> [WSBAPT] DOR Tax Warrants on Beneficiary of Estate with Real Estate Assets Only</font>
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<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">Hello all,</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">I have an estate with substantial real estate holdings but nothing else in the way of assets. There are two residual estate beneficiaries, A and B. A has outstanding tax warrants that are a little less than
the value of A’s interest in the residual estate. DOR has filed a notice of tax lien on A’s interest in the estate assets. DOR is now telling me that the personal representative has to distribute real estate valued in the amount of DOR’s tax warrants directly
to DOR. </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">Has anybody else ever dealt with this? I can’t quite believe that the PR actually needs to distribute real estate to DOR. It would make much more sense to either (i) require the PR to sell A’s share of the
real estate and satisfy B’s tax warrants (and DOR’s tax lien on the estate assets) from that real estate sale before distributing the remaining property or sales proceeds to A; or (ii) require the PR to distribute the real estate to A subject to a lien by
DOR.</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">A is apparently trying to negotiate a settlement with DOR; we have no idea whether that will be successful however. A is also not interested in disclaiming at this point.</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">Any advice would be greatly appreciated!</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">Many thanks,</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt">Natalie</span></p>
<p class="x_MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt"> </span></p>
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