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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">I think the deed sequence depends upon how the transaction is structured.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">If the Estate is transferring directly to buyer-heir, then I think it should be done as a direct deed from Estate to buyer-heir. It would have to be a sale
rather than inheritance because it's not simply a non-pro-rata distribution: the buyer is having to pay in money above her/his inheritance. I find that it's easiest to imagine this simply as a straight sale of property from Estate to a third party, with the
third party getting a credit against the purchase price representing the heir's share of the Estate. That keeps the tax and other consequences clear: it's a normal sale, with all the usual requirements of reporting the sale as capital realization gain/loss;
but excise tax is lower than full sale price because there's an inheritance exemption for a portion.
<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Purchase price absolutely must be backed up by a certified appraisal and agreement of all heirs in writing. That safeguards the PR from any accusation of breach
of fiduciary duty.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">The seller-financing that you describe is a little unusual for an estate. I think it qualifies for the regulatory exemption with DFI--see
<a href="http://www.dfi.wa.gov/residential-seller-financing--but">http://www.dfi.wa.gov/residential-seller-financing</a>--but the main question in my mind is, what is the PR's obligation concerning financing terms and security? I think the PR has a duty to
charge commercial rates of interest and properly secure the debt, just like any other lender. Then the Note should be promptly distributed in-kind (assigned) to the other heir so that the debt is owed directly to the other heir. (I also necessarily assume
that the other heir is completely cooperative with this entire scenario.) Both heirs should be advised to get their own lawyer if they want, since you don't represent them individually and you can't advise them whether the transaction is a good risk/good investment
for either of them. Effectively, the non-buying heir is risking loss of part of their inheritance if they don't get paid back, and the buying heir doesn't know if the price and terms are good.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Alternatively, if you don't want to mess with any of that, then it's okay to do it the other way: distribute from Estate in equal shares to the two heirs, and
let the buyer make her/his own arrangements with sibling to buy the other out. They can get separate counsel for that. I think excise tax would be higher because it's a straight sale of 50% as opposed to a smaller interest resulting from an offset of the inheritance--but
it keeps the Estate out of the transaction and avoids the Estate having to work through the nuances of its fiduciary duties to all heirs.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt;font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Sincerely,<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Eric<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D"><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">Eric C. Nelsen<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif";color:#1F497D">SAYRE LAW OFFICES, PLLC<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><b><span style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Tahoma","sans-serif"">From:</span></b><span style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Tahoma","sans-serif""> wsbapt-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com [mailto:wsbapt-bounces@lists.wsbarppt.com]
<b>On Behalf Of </b>Chandra Lewnau<br>
<b>Sent:</b> Tuesday, March 17, 2015 8:42 AM<br>
<b>To:</b> WSBA Probate & Trust Discussion List<br>
<b>Subject:</b> [WSBAPT] best way to deed property to heir who is buying out siblings<o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal" style="margin-bottom:12.0pt">I have a probate where one heir wishes to purchase the decedent's home. Is there any reason this can't be done in one step - i.e. a deed from the PR (as pr and as individual) to the heir - rather than PR to
all heirs and then all heirs to the purchasing heir? It's a small estate with two sibling heirs who get along well. The purchasing heir will take a smaller share of other assets and give a promissory note for the remaining balance with a relatively short payoff.
It seems simple, I'm wondering if there are any tax or other consequences I may be missing.<o:p></o:p></p>
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</span><span style="font-size:10.0pt;font-family:"Arial","sans-serif";color:#3A3637">Wills & Trusts | Probate | Small Business</span><span style="font-family:"Arial","sans-serif";color:#3A3637">
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