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<p class=MsoNormal>Did the Supreme Court decision on the ban suggest how the
expense of supporting or opposing a candidate shall be treated for tax purposes?
It’s one thing to allow corporations (and presumably unions) to spend
money directly for this purpose, but the money has to come from somewhere. Is
it to be a legitimate expense, deducted from taxes, or taken from profit after
taxes, or what? What will, and will not, the IRS allow? And what of shareholders?
If XYZ Corp supports Sarah Palin for Congress from Alaska, and a sizeable
number (or even a handful) of the shareholders are opposed to her, is this a legitimate
basis for a stockholder suit? I suspect this decision by the Supreme Court,
while seemingly favorable to big business, is not as cut and dried as it first
appears. <o:p></o:p></p>
<p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class=MsoNormal>And if corporations have the same rights as individuals to
spend money directly, do corporations have the same limits imposed on their
expenditures as are exerted on individuals? What of non-profit corporations
such as churches? Can they now openly support or oppose an individual or group
at election time? This seems like a subject made for the Viz—opinions
will fly fast and furious and facts will be slow to develop. Oh boy! Watch the
mud being slung!<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class=MsoNormal>John Pool<o:p></o:p></p>
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