<DIV>Andreas,</DIV> <DIV> </DIV> <DIV>Maybe you are right, and surely are better versed in law than me. But as I understand it, a definition of "property owner" has never been established in this country, and the Constitution does not actually explicitly ensure the right to vote. Individual states decide who can and cannot vote and what those requirements will be, with exception of course by race, gender and age based on the 14th and 26th amendments, respectively. </DIV> <DIV><BR> </DIV> <DIV>Best,</DIV> <DIV> </DIV> <DIV>Donovan</DIV> <DIV><BR><B><I>Andreas Schou <ophite@gmail.com></I></B> wrote:</DIV> <BLOCKQUOTE class=replbq style="PADDING-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; BORDER-LEFT: #1010ff 2px solid">On 5/11/07, Donovan Arnold <DONOVANJARNOLD2005@YAHOO.COM>wrote:<BR>> I think the key word is "may" restrict to landowners,it is not "shall". The<BR>> legislature has chosen not to, on account they would not win reelection.<BR><BR>D
--<BR><BR>And on account of the fact that we are a nation with universal<BR>suffrage, and I doubt that the 14th Amendment would look kindly on<BR>methods of voting that proposed to restrict the franchise to those<BR>rich enough to own property.<BR><BR>-- ACS<BR><BR>=======================================================<BR>List services made available by First Step Internet, <BR>serving the communities of the Palouse since 1994. <BR>http://www.fsr.net <BR>mailto:Vision2020@moscow.com<BR>=======================================================<BR></BLOCKQUOTE><BR><p> 
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