[Vision2020] Question for the biblical scholars

lfalen lfalen at turbonet.com
Wed Mar 21 10:40:06 PDT 2007


Thanks Chas and Ralph
It was just curiosity on my part. I thought it might give people something else to talk about.

Roger
-----Original message-----
From: Chasuk chasuk at gmail.com
Date: Wed, 21 Mar 2007 01:23:29 -0700
To: lfalen lfalen at turbonet.com
Subject: Re: [Vision2020] Question for the biblical scholars

> On 3/20/07, lfalen <lfalen at turbonet.com> wrote:
> 
> > I learned the Lord's Prayer as debts and debtors. A lot of denominations say forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those that trespass against us. How did the difference come about? Is it a Methodist vs Baptist thing?
> 
> I think it is a matter of translation rather than denomination, Roger.
>  I know that the New International Version, arguably the most popular
> of the 20th century translations, uses debts and debtors.  I believe
> that the New American Standard Bible and the King James Version do as
> well.
> 
> Ah.  Thanks to Wikipedia, here is a more precise answer:
> 
> Though Matthew 6:12 uses the term debts, the 1662 version of the
> Lord's Prayer uses the term trespasses, while ecumenical versions
> often use the term sins. The latter choice may be due to Luke 11:4,
> which uses the word sins, while the former may be due to Matthew 6:12
> (immediately after the text of the prayer), where Jesus speaks of
> trespasses. As early as the third century, Origen used the word
> trespasses (παραπτώματα) in the prayer. Though the Latin form that was
> traditionally used in Western Europe has debita (debts), most
> English-speaking Christians (except Presbyterians and others of the
> Reformed tradition), use trespasses. The Established Presbyterian
> Church of Scotland follows the version found in Matthew 6 in the
> Authorized Version (known also as the King James Version), which in
> the prayer uses the words "debts" and "debtors".
> 
> Is that of any use?
> 



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